Why is לבבך being pronounced as le-vav-cho and not le va ve cho. Theres a long vowel proceeding the consonant, there is a tam after the shewa, and a mateg is there and even if it was a tam which would make a shewa silent there are two tams so it reverts back to a vocal shewa. I noticed this in your other pronunciations like עשך in deuteronomy. It shud be a-se-cho not as-cho. I mean based of of what i learned outside of gregory khan research. Can you help me better understand what is going on here? Thank you :)